Does he have to have the intention of exiting the prayer when he says the tasleem?

Is it necessary when saying the tasleem at the end of the prayer to intend by saying this tasleem to exit the prayer? Is my prayer valid if I do not do that?.

Praise be to Allaah.

the worshipper does not have to intend exiting the prayer when saying the tasleem; if he says the tasleem without intending that, it is acceptable. This is the view of the majority of fuqaha’ among the Hanafis, Shaafa‘is and Hanbalis.

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: He should intend when saying the tasleem to exit the prayer. If he does not have that intention, then Ibn Haamid said that his prayer is rendered invalid, and this is the apparent meaning of the statement of ash-Shaafa‘i, because it is uttered at one of the two ends of the prayer, so having the intention is essential, as is also the case with the takbeer (at the beginning of the prayer).

What was narrated from Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him) is that it does not render his prayer invalid, and this is the correct opinion, because the intention to pray covers all of the prayer, and the salaam is part of it. And because if it were obligatory to form the attention when saying the salaam, there should have been some text to specify that, as with the opening takbeer, and because it is an act of worship. So it is not required to form the intention to exit the prayer, as is also the case with other acts of worship.) Drawing an analogy between the end of the prayer and the beginning is not correct; the intention is regarded as essential at the beginning so that it covers all other parts of the prayer, unlike the ending. Hence there is a differentiation between the beginning and end in all acts of worship. Continue reading

Should the one who is slaughtering the sacrifice utter the intention at the time of slaughter?

If the one who is slaughtering a sacrifice says, “This is on behalf of So and so,” i.e., he names the one on whose behalf the sacrifice is being offered at the time of slaughter, is this uttering the intention?.

Praise be to Allaah.

This is not uttering the attention, because if the one who is offering the sacrifice says, “This is on my behalf and on behalf of my household,” he is stating what is in his heart. He has not said, “O Allah, I want to offer a sacrifice,” as would be said by the one who wants to utter his intention. Rather he is only expressing what is in his heart. The intention was already there, from the time he brought the animal, lay it down and slaughtered it, so he had already formed the intention. End quote. Continue reading

What matter is the intention – even if there is a slip of the tongue

When I entered ihram, my intention was to perform ‘Umrah and remain in ihram until Hajj, but what I said was to perform Hajj and remain in ihram until ‘Umrah, but actions are judged by intentions, not by words uttered. What is your opinion concerning this action and this Hajj? What I did was what I intended and not what I actually said.

Praise be to Allaah.

If what you said was a slip of the tongue and you did not intend to do that, then it does not affect anything, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Actions are but by intentions, and each person will have but that which he intended.”

Narrated by al-Bukhaari (1) and Muslim (1907).

If your intention was to enter ihram for ‘Umrah and remain in ihram until Hajj, but you made a mistake and said, “I am entering ihram for Hajj and will remain in ihram for ‘Umrah,” or something of that nature, it does not affect anything, because what matters is what was in the heart and if a person makes a slip of the tongue and says something different than what he intended, that does not affect anything. And Allah is the source of strength. End quote.  Continue reading

A woman who was thrice-divorced (three talaaqs) married another man, with the intention of asking for divorce. Can she ask for divorce now?

I was married before and have a baby girl with my previous husband. I got married again but before I got married to my current husband I had the intentions of going back to my ex husband because I am still in love with him. I couldnt help how I feel about my ex husband. so now can I divorce my current husband so I could go back with my ex husband?
furthermore I could not help how I feel about my ex husband and no matter how hard I tried to get these intentions out of my heart I could not. I had no agreement for divorce so I could go back to my ex husband.
am just not happy with my current husband is that a valid reason to divorce him?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If a man divorces his wife three times, she is not permissible for him until she has married another man in a genuine marriage, not a tahleel marriage (one that is aimed at making it permissible for her to go back to her first husband), then he leaves her, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And if he has divorced her (the third time), then she is not lawful unto him thereafter until she has married another husband”

[al-Baqarah 2:230].

Abu Dawood (2076) narrated that the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Allaah has cursed the muhallil and the muhallal lahu.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Sunan Abi Dawood. [The muhallil is the one who marries a woman and divorces her so that she can go back to her first husband, and the muhallal lahu is the first husband for whom this is done.]

If a divorced woman married a second husband with the intention of getting divorced from him so that she can go back to the first one, there is a difference of opinion among the fuqaha’ in this case. Some of them regard this as tahleel, which is haraam, and some say that her intention does not affect anything.  Continue reading

It is not prescribed to utter the intention for Hajj or for ‘Umrah

If the pilgrim says “Labbayka ‘umratan (here I am for ‘Umrah)” or “Laybbayka hajjan (Here I am for Hajj)”, is that regarded as uttering the intention?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If a person says “Labbayka ‘umratan (Here I am for ‘Umrah)” or “Laybbayka hajjan (Here I am for Hajj)”, that does not come under the heading of forming the intention, because he formed the intention before that. Hence it is not prescribed to say, “O Allah, I am going to do ‘Umrah” or “O Allah, I am going to do Hajj.” Rather you should form the retention in your heart and recite the Tabiyah out loud. With regard to uttering the intention for actions other than Hajj or ‘Umrah, this is something which it is well known is not prescribed. It is not Sunnah for a person to say, when he wants to do wudoo’, “O Allah, I am going to do wudoo’” or “O Allah, I intend to do wudoo’”, or when he wants to pray to say “O Allah, I am going to pray” or “O Allah, I intend to pray.” None of that is prescribed. And the best guidance is the guidance of Muhammad (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him). End quote.  Continue reading

It is not prescribed to utter the intention (niyyah) out loud when giving zakaah

What is the ruling on uttering the intention (niyyah) out loud when giving zakaah? For example, can I say when giving zakaah, “O Allah, this is the zakaah of my wealth”? If that is not permissible, how should one form the intention when giving zakaah?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The place for the intention is the heart, and it is not permissible to utter it out loud for prayer, fasting or zakaah. See the answer to question no. 13337.

Shaykh al-Fawzaan (may Allah preserve him) said: … Except in two cases.

The first case is when entering ihram for Hajj or ‘Umrah, in which case one says “Labbayka ‘umratan (here I am for ‘Umrah)” or “Labbayka Hajjan (here I am for Hajj)”.

The second case is when slaughtering the hadiy or udhiyah or ‘aqeeqah, when one should say Bismillah and state which type it is, whether it is ‘aqeeqah or ‘udhiyah or hadiy, and on whose behalf it is being offered. So he should say: In the name of Allah and on behalf of So and so” or “In the name of Allah on my behalf and on behalf of my household,” then he should slaughter it.

In these two cases it is prescribed to utter the intention out loud; in all other cases it is not permissible to utter the intention out loud for any act of worship, prayer or anything else.

End quote from al-Muntaqa min Fataawa al-Fawzaan, 5/30

Based on that, whoever wants to give the zakaah of his wealth should form the intention in his heart that this wealth is the zakaah of his wealth, and it is not prescribed for him to utter his intention verbally.

And Allah knows best. Continue reading

Using a credit card with the intention of not delaying payment

I live in occupied Jerusalem, Palestine. As you know there are no Islamic banks here, all banks deal with interest. What is the ruling on using the credit cards of these banks, knowing that if I delay paying in a specific date I will have to pay the interest to the bank? But I will never delay paying in order to avoid paying the interest. I know that this card is considered a Riba contract. And that what is built on wrong will remain wrong, but I do not take or pay interest. 
I intend to use it as I cannot afford some very expensive things at once, only by installments. I do not know if the things I want to buy are necessary in the Sharia’s point of view, but I am in need of them as soon as possible. I do not want to follow my desire and deviate from the right. Note that I pay a fixed monthly amount for this credit card service regardless how many times I used it.

Praise be to Allaah.

It is not permissible to use credit cards that stipulate payment of interest even if a person intends to pay it off on time, because it is not permissible to approve of riba or enter a contract that includes it. And because a person may fall into riba as the result of delaying payments due to forgetting, travelling and so on.  Continue reading

Taking a sample of clothing from a store and making something similar with the intention of selling it

With regard to the ready-made clothing market, what is the ruling on taking a sample of clothing from another store, whether it belongs to a Muslim or to a kaafir, and making similar garments with slight differences in style, for a lower price? What is the ruling on this sample and selling it – is that permissible?.

Praise be to Allaah.

If that involves deceit and cheating the purchaser, who may think that the new product is the same as the old product, or it involves using a registered trademark or trade name, then doing that is haraam, because it involves deceit and transgression against the rights of others. The Islamic Fiqh Council has issued a statement forbidding transgression against the intangible rights of others (such as copyright and patents etc). The text of this statement is as follows:

Trade names, business names, trademarks, written works, inventions and patents are all rights that belong to their owners or authors. According to modern customs and usage they have acquired considerable monetary value. These rights are respected in sharee’ah and it is not permissible to transgress against them.  Continue reading

When should a person make the intention to fast, and what if he finds out during the day that Ramadan has begun?

Should the intention to fast Ramadan be made at night or during the day? And if someone tells you at the time of duha (forenoon) that today it is Ramadan, should you make it up or not?.

Praise be to Allaah.

It is essential to make the intention to fast the month of Ramadan at night, before Fajr. It is not sufficient to start fasting it that day without the intention. Whoever finds out at the time of Duha that today it is Ramadan and makes the intention of fasting has to refrain from eating until sunset, and he also has to make up that day, because it was narrated by Ibn ‘Umar from Hafsah (may Allaah be pleased with her) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not have the intention of fasting before Fajr, there is no fast for him.” Narrated by Imam Ahmad, the authors of al-Sunan, Ibn Khuzaymah and Ibn Hibbaan; they classed it as saheeh and marfoo’.

This is with regard to obligatory fasts. With regard to naafil fasts it is permissible to make the intention to fast on the day, if you have not eaten or drunk or had intercourse after Fajr, because it was proven in the hadeeth of ‘Aa’ishah (may Allaah be pleased with her) that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) entered upon her one day at duha time and said, “Do you have anything (any food)?” She said, “No.” He said, “Then I am fasting.” Narrated by Muslim in his Saheeh.

And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and his family and companions. Continue reading

He bought land with the intention of selling it. How should he pay zakaah on it?

I bought some land for 115,000 riyals with the intention of selling it, and one year has passed. Do I have to pay zakaah? How much is the threshold of zakaah (nisaab) in Saudi riyals, if zakaah is due on it?.

Praise be to Allaah.

The fact that you took possession of the land with the intention of selling it means that zakaah is due on it every year, so you should calculate the value of the land at the end of the year and pay zakaah on this amount. The rate of zakaah that must be paid on it is one-quarter of one-tenth, i.e. 2.5%, which should be paid in the ways specified by Allaah in the verse (interpretation of the meaning):

“As-Sadaqaat (here it means Zakaah) are only for the Fuqaraa’ (poor), and Al-Masaakeen (the poor) and those employed to collect (the funds); and to attract the hearts of those who have been inclined (towards Islam); and to free the captives; and for those in debt; and for Allaah’s Cause (i.e. for Mujaahidoon — those fighting in a holy battle), and for the wayfarer (a traveller who is cut off from everything); a duty imposed by Allaah. And Allaah is All-Knower, All-Wise”

[al-Tawbah 9:60]

It should be noted that if goods for trade are bought with gold, silver or cash money (riyals, dollars or other currencies), or in return for other goods (barter), then the year for calculating zakaah starts from the time when you acquired the wealth with which you paid for the goods. Based on this, then the year for the goods does not start from the time you took possession of them, rather it starts from the time you acquired the wealth with which you paid for them.  Continue reading