What is the ruling if a child commits suicide before the age of puberty?

If your a teenager or child and you commit suicide where would you go.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly:

Suicide is a major sin. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) stated that the one who commits suicide will be punished with something like that with which he killed himself. 

Fake divorce in the court so that the wife can get assistance from the state

My father is Syrian and my mother is Emirati, and we live in the Emirates. The Emirates government gives assistance to divorced Emirati women and also gives a loan, to be repaid in instalments, to build a house. Can my father divorce my mother in the court, not with the intention of really divorcing her (talaaq), but only in order to obtain this assistance and to get the loan to build a house, because we are a big family and my father has two wives, and we are twenty people. My father’s intention is not really to divorce my mother; rather it is for the purpose of obtaining the assistance. If it is not halaal, he will divorce her and make that sacrifice so that we can get the house, because life is full of difficulties.

Praise be to Allaah.

Firstly:

Allah has ordained divorce (talaaq) to dissolve the marriage contract, which is a firm and strong covenant. Allah says (interpretation of the meaning): “and they have taken from you a firm and strong covenant” [an-Nisa’ 4:21].

No one has the right to use divorce except in a serious manner and for a reason.

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: The Lawgiver forbids treating the verses (laws) of Allah as a jest or to speak of the verses of Allah that are covenants, except in a serious manner that shows commitment to the shar‘i conditions and obligations. Hence it is forbidden to take them as a jest as it is also forbidden to engage in a tahleel marriage (in which an irrevocably divorced woman marries another man with the intention of getting divorced so that she can go back to her first husband). This is indicated by the words of Allah (interpretation of the meaning): “And treat not the Verses (Laws) of Allah as a jest” [al-Baqarah 2:231]. And the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon) said: “What is wrong with people who play with the limits of Allaah and take His verses (laws) as a jest, and one of them says, ‘I divorce you, I take you back, I divorce you, I take you back’?” Thus it is established that tampering with them (the laws and limits set by Allah) is haraam.

He divorced his wife to prove to his family that he’s not scared of her while not wanting to do so

I got marrried to a new Muslim who converted to Islam. After 2 weeks of marriage, problems started coming between my family and my wife since I live with my sister and my mother. After a month my mother and sister thought that I was under her spell and that I can’t see her true characters, so the following day they came to my room and we started arguing and my wife was there too. In the argument, i told my mother that if i divorce her in front of u will u believe that I’m not under her spell? And she said that you will never divorce her and that she didn’t believe me. So I divorced my wife in front of my mother. I loved my wife but I wanted to make her believe that I am not under her spell… does it count as a talaaq (divorce)? That’s the first thing I want to know and the second thing is that I’m a student of Islam in Medinah University so thanks to Allah that he gave me sabr (patience), but my wife has left me 3 times with my children (a boy and a girl) and she doesn’t have sabr. Now she lives at her friend’s house and will not come home to me. I keep telling her that it is not allowed in Islam to take a pause from marriage but she will not listen to me anymore, so just a month ago she asked for talaaq from me on my mobile phone but i didn’t want to give her talaaq, so she screamed at me and shouted at me to the extent that I got so angry, I turned my phone off. Then she called me after 2 minutes and I was still angry at her that when I answered the phone I said to her that I will give you what you want and I gave her talaaq on the phone. Does it count as talaaq? Because I didn’t want to give her talaaq; even if she has been asking me for talaaq for many months, I didnt give her talaaq because I was thinking of my children, but when she shouted at me and screamed at me on the phone I felt humiliated by her and got angry and gave her talaaq . I hope u can answer me very fast brother because I want to know if she is still my wife or not and I don’t want to see her without hijab if she is not my wife.

Praise be to Allaah.

First:

It is important for you to realize that divorce is a law from the laws of Allah and a limit from His limits that he has made clear for His slaves and warned them of crossing it or marginalizing it.

Allah, the Exalted said while clarifying divorce and its rulings (what means): “Divorce is twice. Then, either keep [her] in an acceptable manner or release [her] with good treatment. And it is not lawful for you to take anything of what you have given them unless both fear that they will not be able to keep [within] the limits of Allah. But if you fear that they will not keep [within] the limits of Allah, then there is no blame upon either of them concerning that by which she ransoms herself. These are the limits of Allah, so do not transgress them. And whoever transgresses the limits of Allah – it is those who are the wrongdoers. And if he has divorced her [for the third time], then she is not lawful to him afterward until [after] she marries a husband other than him. And if the latter husband divorces her [or dies], there is no blame upon the woman and her former husband for returning to each other if they think that they can keep [within] the limits of Allah. These are the limits of Allah, which He makes clear to a people who know.” [2:29-230]

At the beginning of soorah at-Talaq, Allah, the Exalted says (what means): “O Prophet, when you [Muslims] divorce women, divorce them for [the commencement of] their waiting period and keep count of the waiting period, and fear Allah, your Lord. Do not turn them out of their [husbands'] houses, nor should they [themselves] leave [during that period] unless they are committing a clear immorality. And those are the limits [set by] Allah. And whoever transgresses the limits of Allah has certainly wronged himself. You know not; perhaps Allah will bring about after that a [different] matter.” [65:1]

So Allah, the Exalted clarifies that opposing the laws which He prescribed for His slaves is turning away from what Allah has permitted and is an oppression of themselves by doing it.

The Prophet (may the Peace and Blessings of Allah be upon him) warned of the transgression of the transgressors and the jest of the jesters concerning His limits; An-Nasai reported from Mahmood ibn Labeed (may Allah be pleased with him) that he said: The Messenger of Allah (may the Peace and Blessings of Allah be upon him) was informed of a man who divorced his wife three divorces all together. So he stood up angrily and said: “Does he play with the book of Allah and I am amongst you!” Then a man stood up and said: Oh Messenger of Allah, shall I not kill him?! In Buloogh al Maram, al-Hafidh ibn Hajar said: Its narrators are reliable.

Abu Musa al Ash’ari (may Allah be pleased with him) said: The Messenger of Allah (may the Peace and Blessings of Allah be upon him) said: “What is the matter with people who play with the limits of Allah: I divorce you, I take you back, I divorce you, I take you back.” Reported by al-Bayhaqi in as-Sunan al-Kubra, declared sound by al Albani.

Should the hair of the deceased man be put into three braids, as is done for a woman?

It is mentioned in a hadith about the washing of the daughter of the Prophet (saw) that the hair of the women is to be divided in three parts, the two sides and the center. What is the sunnah in regards to men? Is it the same? At a recent funeral, a brother parted the hair of the deceased person from the middle saying that was the sunnah.

Praise be to Allaah.

The Sunnah is the put the hair of a deceased woman into three braids. It was narrated that Umm ‘Atiyyah (may Allah be pleased with her) said: One of the daughters of the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) died. The Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) came to us and said: “Wash her with lotus leaves an odd number of times, three, or five, or more than that if you see fit, and put camphor in (the water) the last time, or a little camphor. And when you have finished, let me know.” When we had finished, we let him know, and he gave us his waist wrapper (to shroud her in). And we put her hair into three braids and put them behind her. 

A Christian woman is asking a Muslim woman for help in raising a Muslim girl

I’m in a little strange situation now and cannot say no to the person who is asking me for help. I’m a university student in the U.S. and meet this African American women who is a Christian, began talking to me and I felt the need to talk to her since she was going through a lot of issues and things that bothered her. I tried not getting to close to her, but she was unavoidable and I felt the need to be nice so I don’t make it seem that Muslims are mean, etc.
Her husband’s family she says are Muslims, I suppose they are, and did not judge. Her husband has two+ women who he has a relation with.One of the ladies he has a relation with has a 9 year old daughter.
This 9 year old child has attempted suicide and is really depressed and cares nothing about life.
The African American lady that I met at school told me she has taken it upon herself to try and care for this 9 year old daughter even though she is not her child. She wants to know the Islamic ruling on how to care for this child so that she doesn’t lose her parents’ faith.
I’m not sure how to go about this situation, especially since the women is of a different faith than the 9 year old child.
If you understood my situation well, can you provide me with advice on how to help the women help the child. The mother of this child seems to only tell her this and that is wrong in Islam and don’t do it. How is the best way to convince this child of the reality of life, etc. The child doesn’t have a close relationship with the parents and most likely is in a bad school setting, with bad friends, etc. I myself do not know the whole situation of the child but will know soon through the African American lady who asked for my help.

Praise be to Allaah.

If this woman is the mother of that girl it is not permissible for her – according to sharee‘ah – to have custody of her Muslim daughter, because a kaafir cannot be entrusted with raising a Muslim child in Islam; rather he will cause the child to follow his own religion. We have discussed this previously in the answer to question no. 21516. So how about if she is not even her daughter?

He won two movie tickets; is it permissible for him to give them to a non-Muslim?

My husband gets gifted with Movie Tickets from his Office on the basis of work performance. Alhamdullilah we do not watch Movies. Is it permissible for him to give it to his non-muslim collegues at work or should we just throw them away.

Praise be to Allaah.

We praise Allah for having enabled you to adhere to His laws and for having guided you to that which is in your best interests. As for movies, if they include haraam things such as showing women with adornments, music and alcohol, it is not permissible to watch them. That has been discussed previously in the answer to question no. 125535, 114707 and 85232

Just as it is not permissible for a Muslim to watch movies that include haraam things, it is not permissible for him to help other people to do so, even if the other person is a non-Muslim, because the minor issues of sharee‘ah are also addressed to the disbelievers, as we have explained in the answer to question no. 140550. So what is forbidden to the Muslim is also forbidden to the disbeliever, and he will be punished for that in addition to the punishment for disbelief (kufr).

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: It is not permissible for a man to help anyone else in disobeying Allah, even if that person does not believe that it is a sin, such as helping the disbelievers to acquire alcohol and pork.

Does he have to have the intention of exiting the prayer when he says the tasleem?

Is it necessary when saying the tasleem at the end of the prayer to intend by saying this tasleem to exit the prayer? Is my prayer valid if I do not do that?.

Praise be to Allaah.

the worshipper does not have to intend exiting the prayer when saying the tasleem; if he says the tasleem without intending that, it is acceptable. This is the view of the majority of fuqaha’ among the Hanafis, Shaafa‘is and Hanbalis.

Ibn Qudaamah (may Allah have mercy on him) said: He should intend when saying the tasleem to exit the prayer. If he does not have that intention, then Ibn Haamid said that his prayer is rendered invalid, and this is the apparent meaning of the statement of ash-Shaafa‘i, because it is uttered at one of the two ends of the prayer, so having the intention is essential, as is also the case with the takbeer (at the beginning of the prayer).

What was narrated from Ahmad (may Allah have mercy on him) is that it does not render his prayer invalid, and this is the correct opinion, because the intention to pray covers all of the prayer, and the salaam is part of it. And because if it were obligatory to form the attention when saying the salaam, there should have been some text to specify that, as with the opening takbeer, and because it is an act of worship. So it is not required to form the intention to exit the prayer, as is also the case with other acts of worship.) Drawing an analogy between the end of the prayer and the beginning is not correct; the intention is regarded as essential at the beginning so that it covers all other parts of the prayer, unlike the ending. Hence there is a differentiation between the beginning and end in all acts of worship.

He works as a cleaner in a butcher shop and he is asking about the blood that gets on his clothes whilst he is working

I work in a butcher’s shop that sells halaal meat, in sha Allah, as a cleaner. Sometimes a spot of blood falls on my clothes from the carcasses of animals that were slaughtered a few days ago, and the time for prayer may come when I am in the middle of my work.
1. Is that blood taahir (pure) or najis (impure)?
2. Is it permissible for me to pray in those clothes on which there is a spot of blood?.

Praise be to Allaah.

With regard to “blood poured forth” that comes out of the animal at the time of slaughter, it is najis (impure) according to scholarly consensus.

With regard to the blood that is mixed with the meat or that remains in the veins, it is not called “blood poured forth” and it is taahir (pure).

Imam at-Tabari (may Allah have mercy on him) said:

In the verse in which Allah tells His slaves that blood is haraam, He mentions “blood poured forth” (al-An‘aam 6:145), to the exclusion of other types of blood. This clearly indicates that blood that is not “poured forth” is halaal and not najis.

Then he narrated from ‘Ikrimah the words: Were it not for this verse, the Muslims would have had to trace out the blood from the veins as the Jews do.

Ruling on meat slaughted by a Kitaabi if at the time of slaughter he says “In the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit”

Ive read your fetwa on the subject mentioned but according to our country’s context, its a little bit different which forced me to ask further explanation. You mentioned that a meat slaughtered by ahlel kitab can be eaten provided that it is slaughtered in the name of Allah. In another fetwa in your site, it is also mentioned that we don’t need to ask whether that specific meat is slaughtered in the name of Allah, as long as it is slaughtered by a Muslim or a kitabiy. In our country (Ethiopia), we already know that Christians most of the time slaughter after saying: ” In the name of the father (referring to God), the Son, and the holy spirit”. So, can we consider their being ahlel kitab and eat their meat with out asking about what has been mentioned during slaughtering, or do we have to take all their meat as unlawful?.

Praise be to Allaah.

It is permissible to eat meat slaughtered by a Kitaabi (a Jew or a Christian) subject to two conditions:

1.     That the meat is slaughtered as the Muslims slaughter it, by cutting the trachea and oesophagus and draining the blood. If he kills it by strangulation, electric shock or drowning in water, then the meat he has slaughtered is not halaal. The same applies if the Muslim does that; the meat he has slaughtered is not halaal.

2.     That no name other than the name of Allah, such as the name of the Messiah or any other name, is mentioned over it, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): “Eat not (O believers) of that (meat) on which Allah’s Name has not been pronounced (at the time of the slaughtering of the animal)” [al-An‘aam 6:121]. And He says concerning haraam foods: “He has forbidden you only the Maytatah (dead animals), and blood, and the flesh of swine, and that which is slaughtered as a sacrifice for others than Allah (or has been slaughtered for idols, etc., on which Allah’s Name has not been mentioned while slaughtering)” [al-Baqarah 2:173].

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allah have mercy on him) said: What is meant here is that on which a name other than the name of Allah was mentioned at the time of slaughter, such as saying “In the name of the Messiah” or “in the name of Muhammad” or “in the name of Jibreel” or “in the name of al-Laat” and the like.

End quote from Tafseer Soorat al-Baqarah.

Is it permissible for them to register what the father owns in one of the sons’ names because their father’s wife wants to do that for herself?

My father is elderly and can no longer tell what’s right and what’s wrong. He has a wife who does not care about him, and Allah is witness to what I say. She is trying to get him to register in her name all that he owns and give her authority to buy and sell (on his behalf).
Can we change the ownership to the name of one of my brothers without planning to deprive her of the inheritance if he dies before us?.

Praise be to Allaah.

There is no guarantee for the rights of your father’s wife if you register his property in the name of one of your brothers; in fact there is no guarantee for the rights of the other siblings if the property is registered in the name of only one, as you want to do in this case. It is possible that this brother may take over the entire estate on the basis of this registration that you are asking for. In fact there have been many cases like this. Two wrongs do not make a right.

Just as you have rights with regard to your father’s property that you fear for, the wife also has rights with regard to her husband’s property that she fears for. Just as you fear that she may take over your father’s property, she fears the same thing from you.

The reality is that this solution offers no guarantees to anyone and it cannot be allowed.

But if you really fear the possibility of undue influence for your father and his condition does not let him distinguish between what is right and what is wrong, then the Islamically prescribed way of dealing with that is to get a court injunction that will prevent the carrying out of any of his instructions given during the period when he was incapacitated and there was the possibility of tampering or undue influence.

However we are aware that there are far-reaching social difficulties that may stand in the way of this solution, and there may also be legal difficulties in your country, so you can convince your father to divide his property now among all his heirs who are still alive and transfer ownership to them at the time when it is divided.

In this manner each party will be protected against tampering from the others.

And Allah knows best.